If the only point of inflection of the function `f(x)-(x-a)^m(x-b)^n` , `m, n e N` and `m!=n` i...
322 views · Published 12 October 2018 · 6:20 · Indexed 28 September 2026
Channel: Doubtnut · 2018 · Education
To ask Unlimited Maths doubts download Doubtnut from - https://goo.gl/9WZjCW If the only point of inflection of the function `f(x)-(x-a)^m(x-b)^n` , `m, n e N` and `m!=n` is at `x=a` then
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