If `U_n=int_0^(pi/2)(sin^2n x)/(sin^2x)dx,` then show that `U_1,U_2,U_3.......U_n` constitute
15 views · Published 13 October 2018 · 6:11 · Indexed 1 October 2026
Channel: Doubtnut · 2018 · Education
To ask Unlimited Maths doubts download Doubtnut from - https://goo.gl/9WZjCW If `U_n=int_0^(pi/2)(sin^2n x)/(sin^2x)dx,` then show that `U_1,U_2,U_3.......U_n` constitute an AP. Hence or otherwise find the value of `U_n.`
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